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| 1. | Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
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A. Beryllium Oxide |
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B. Uranium Hexaflouride |
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C. Zinc oxide |
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D. Mica |
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| 2. | With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
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A. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment |
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B. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz |
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C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment |
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D. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact |
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| 3. | What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
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A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator |
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B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands |
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C. Specific local government channels |
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D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels |
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| 4. | Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
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A. A control operator must be present at the control point |
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B. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled |
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C. A control operator need not be present at the control point |
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D. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station |
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| 5. | Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
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A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX |
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B. The FCC’s International Bureau, Washington, DC |
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C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC |
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D. All of these answers are correct |
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| 6. | Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
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A. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner |
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B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau |
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C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team |
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D. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted |
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| 7. | What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
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A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope |
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B. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory |
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C. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area |
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D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral |
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| 8. | What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
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A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands |
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B. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems |
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C. Which sideband to use |
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D. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands |
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| 9. | How are analog slow-scan television images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
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A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation |
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B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation |
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C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband |
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D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using FM |
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| 10. | Which of the following is true about contest operating?
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A. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable |
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B. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange |
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C. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log |
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D. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station |
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| 11. | What is the definition of “baud”?
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A. The number of characters transmitted per minute |
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B. The number of words transmitted per minute |
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C. The number of data symbols transmitted per second |
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D. The number of characters transmitted per second |
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| 12. | Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
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A. MFSK16 |
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B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY |
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C. PSK31 |
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D. 300-baud packet |
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| 13. | What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
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A. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute |
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B. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes |
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C. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes |
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D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes |
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| 14. | What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
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A. Long-path |
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B. Transequatorial |
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C. Auroral |
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D. Sporadic-E |
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| 15. | Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation?
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A. CW |
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B. RTTY |
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C. FM |
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D. SSB |
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| 16. | How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope?
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A. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain |
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B. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies |
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C. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals |
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D. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals |
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| 17. | Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
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A. Keep the ground connection of the probe as short as possible |
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B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit |
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C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit |
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D. All of these choices are correct |
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| 18. | What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
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A. Undesired signals may be heard |
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B. Thermal-noise distortion |
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C. Filter ringing |
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D. Output-offset overshoot |
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| 19. | What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
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A. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other |
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B. The difference in dB between the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression, and the level of the noise floor |
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C. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor |
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D. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point |
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| 20. | Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
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A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels |
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B. Signals which appear at one IF but not another |
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C. Signals which appear correlated across a wide bandwidth |
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D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution |
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| 21. | What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
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A. 47.3 kHz |
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B. 157.8 Hz |
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C. 23.67 kHz |
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D. 315.6 Hz |
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| 22. | What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor?
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A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees |
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B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase |
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C. Voltage and current are in phase |
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D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees |
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| 23. | If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit?
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A. It has to be a direct current circuit |
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B. It is equivalent to a pure resistance |
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C. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance |
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D. It contains resistance and inductive reactance |
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| 24. | How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
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A. 2000 watts |
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B. 400 watts |
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C. 50 watts |
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D. 80 watts |
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| 25. | What do the initials CMOS stand for?
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A. Complementary metal-oxide substrate |
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B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon |
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C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor |
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D. Common mode oscillating system |
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| 26. | What is one common use for PIN diodes?
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A. As a high voltage rectifier |
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B. As a constant voltage source |
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C. As an RF switch |
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D. As a constant current source |
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| 27. | In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
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A. 3 |
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B. 1 |
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C. 2 |
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D. 4 |
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| 28. | What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10- turn winding?
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A. Core reactivity |
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B. Core load current |
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C. Core permeability |
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D. Core resistance |
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| 29. | How is the operating bias voltage normally supplied to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
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A. MMICs require no operating bias |
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B. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead |
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C. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead |
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D. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead |
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| 30. | What characteristic of optoisolators makes them suitable for use with a triac to form the solid-state equivalent of a mechanical relay for a 120 V AC household circuit?
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A. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and a power circuit |
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B. Optoisolators eliminate (isolate) the effects of reflected light in the control circuit |
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C. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit |
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D. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit |
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| 31. | What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
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A. Reverse Logic |
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B. Positive Logic |
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C. Assertive Logic |
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D. Negative logic |
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| 32. | Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?
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A. Triac |
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B. Nuvistor |
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C. FET |
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D. Silicon Controlled Rectifier |
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| 33. | What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
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A. A phase-inverting filter |
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B. A crystal-lattice filter |
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C. An adaptive filter |
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D. A Hilbert-transform filter |
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| 34. | What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
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A. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 |
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B. It provides fixed bias for D1 |
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C. It decouples hum from D1 |
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D. It provides fixed bias for Q1 |
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| 35. | Which of the following can be used to generate FM-phone emissions?
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A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier |
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B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator |
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C. A balanced modulator on the oscillator |
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D. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier |
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| 36. | What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some frequency counters?
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A. Prescaling |
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B. GPS averaging |
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C. D/A conversion |
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D. Period measurement |
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| 37. | Which of the following capacitor types is best suited for use in high-stability op- amp RC active filter circuits?
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A. Polystyrene |
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B. Paper dielectric |
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C. Disc ceramic |
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D. Electrolytic |
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| 38. | How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
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A. Through a tapped coil |
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B. Through a capacitive divider |
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C. Through link coupling |
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D. Through a neutralizing capacitor |
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| 39. | What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?
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A. A tangent wave |
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B. A cosine wave |
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C. A square wave |
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D. A sine wave |
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| 40. | Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
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A. Pulse compression |
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B. Frequency division multiplexing |
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C. Frequency shift keying |
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D. A diversity combiner |
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| 41. | What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
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A. Spread-spectrum communication |
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B. Time-domain frequency modulation |
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C. Amplitude compandored single sideband |
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D. AMTOR |
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| 42. | What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
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A. 16 watts |
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B. 12.2 watts |
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C. 9.9 watts |
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D. 24.5 watts |
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| 43. | What is a folded dipole antenna?
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A. A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance |
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B. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop |
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C. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long |
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D. A type of ground-plane antenna |
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| 44. | What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
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A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled |
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B. The computed feed-point impedance may be incorrect |
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C. The antenna will become mechanically unstable |
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D. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy |
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| 45. | What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
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A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter |
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B. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization |
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C. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional |
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D. It decreases the ground loss |
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| 46. | What is an advantage of using a trapped antenna?
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A. It minimizes harmonic radiation |
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B. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands |
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C. It has high gain |
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D. It may be used for multi-band operation |
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| 47. | What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
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A. To provide DC isolation between the feed-line and the antenna |
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B. To compensate for the inductive reactance of the matching network |
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C. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value |
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D. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics |
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| 48. | What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
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A. An inductive reactance |
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B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line |
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C. A capacitive reactance |
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D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage |
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| 49. | What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
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A. Resistance circles and reactance arcs |
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B. Voltage lines and current chords |
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C. Resistance lines and reactance chords |
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D. Voltage circles and current arcs |
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| 50. | What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
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A. 300 watts |
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B. 2000 watts |
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C. 126 watts |
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D. 317 watts |
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