KB0MGA.net Practice Exam Element 3: General User: Anonymous

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1.Which property is NOT important in estimating if an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
A. Its critical angle
B. Its frequency
C. Its duty cycle
D. Its power density

 
2.Why is it not safe to use soldered joints with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
A. The resistance of solder is too high
B. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
C. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
D. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

 
3.On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
A. 20 meters
B. 30 meters
C. 12 meters
D. 160 meters

 
4.Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
A. Transmission of bulletins of General interest to amateur radio licensees
B. Identifying Net Frequencies
C. Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities
D. Automatic Identification of Repeaters

 
5.What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands?
A. 19.6 kilobaud
B. 56 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud

 
6.What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
A. There is no age limit
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 12 years

 
7.Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
A. The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish
B. The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C. The third party is a licensed amateur
D. The third party is a person previously licensed in the amateur service whose license had been revoked

 
8.What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
A. Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
C. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

 
9.What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for Slow-Scan TV (SSTV) operation?
A. Follow generally accepted band plans for SSTV operation
B. Transmit only on lower sideband
C. Transmit your callsign as an SSTV image for 1 minute to ensure a clear frequency
D. Select a frequency in the portion of the band set aside for digital operation

 
10.When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the protection of property?
A. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is licensed
B. Any means of radiocommunication at its disposal
C. Any means, but only to RACES recognized emergency stations
D. Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels

 
11.What is an azimuthal projection map?
A. A world map projection centered on a particular location
B. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D. A world map projection centered on the North Pole

 
12.What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
A. "Returning To You", meaning "your turn to transmit"
B. A general call to all digital stations
C. Radio-Teletype
D. Repeater Transmission Type

 
13.When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?
A. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
B. 100 percent copy
C. Key clicks
D. Chirpy or unstable signal

 
14.What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole
B. Ripples in the ionosphere
C. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
D. A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

 
15.What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
C. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
D. They pass through the ionosphere

 
16.What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?
A. Short-path skip
B. Ground wave
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Scatter

 
17.Which of the following instruments may be used to measure the output of a single- sideband transmitter when performing a two-tone test of amplitude linearity?
A. An oscilloscope
B. A directional wattmeter
C. An audio distortion analyzer
D. A high impedance audio voltmeter

 
18.What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?
A. The audio input of the transmitter
B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
C. The local oscillator of the transmitter
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

 
19.Which of the following is covered in the National Electrical Code?
A. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
B. Acceptable bandwidth limits
C. RF exposure limits of the human body
D. Acceptable modulation limits

 
20.Where is an S-meter generally found?
A. In a SWR bridge
B. In a transmitter
C. In a receiver
D. In a conductance bridge

 
21.Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. A direct, fused connection to the battery using resistor wire
B. A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire
C. A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using resistor wire
D. A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

 
22.Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
A. Reactance
B. Conductance
C. Admittance
D. Reluctance

 
23.How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 2.4 watts
B. 60 watts
C. 24 watts
D. 6 watts

 
24.What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
A. Mutual capacitance
B. Mutual inductance
C. Displacement current coupling
D. Capacitive coupling

 
25.What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
A. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
B. The magnetic field may become inverted
C. The voltage rating may be exceeded
D. The permeability will increase

 
26.What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. 2.8 times the AC frequency
D. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction

 
27.Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
A. It has a wide viewing angle
B. It requires ambient or back lighting
C. All of these choices are correct
D. It offers a wide dynamic range

 
28.What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A steady DC voltage
B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

 
29.Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
A. High Efficiency
B. Low standby power
C. No need for bias
D. Low distortion

 
30.What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
A. Audio fidelity is improved
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C. Simpler receiving equipment can be used
D. More transmitter power can be put into the remaining sideband

 
31.How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
A. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
B. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the keying speed in WPM
C. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
D. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed

 
32.What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance?
A. 5:1
B. 1:5
C. 2:1
D. 50:1

 
33.How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
B. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

 
34.What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a 3 Element Yagi antenna?
A. 9.7 dBi
B. All of these choices are correct
C. 7.3 dBd
D. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole

 
35.Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
C. They have poor harmonic rejection
D. They must be fed with open wire line


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